Is it legitimate to say: “Salvation for polytheistic Gentiles,  before the
Cross of Christ,  was by believing in the one God of the Bible or the God
of the Jews?”  See 1 Kings 8:41, 59-60; 9:1-9; Joshua 2:8-11; Ruth 1:16;
2:12; and Jonah 3:5.  Would those having done this readily accept the
Messiah?  Some would not.  Cain for example, Genesis 4:5 and 1 John
3:12.  “Salvation for polytheistic Gentiles,  before the Cross of Christ,
was by believing in the one God of the Bible or the God of the Jews?” is
not the best way to describe salvation before the Cross of Christ.  Any
definition must include belief in the spiritual deliverance of Isaiah 53:5:
“But He was pierced through for our transgressions,  He was crushed for
our iniquities;  the chastening for our well-being fell upon Him, and by
His scourging we are healed.”